Did Mary Have Temptations?

Full Question

Did Mary have temptations?


The Blessed Virgin Mary was immaculately conceived without original or actual sin. She also did not suffer from concupiscence, which is defined by the Catechism of the Catholic Church as “the movement of the sensitive appetite contrary to the operation of the human reason” (CCC 2515). While Scripture does not record whether or not the Blessed Virgin experienced temptations, we do know from Scripture that her Son did experience temptations (Matt. 4:1–11). If it was possible for God the Son, who was also without sin and without concupiscence, to experience temptations, then we can conclude that it was at least within the realm of possibility for the Blessed Virgin to experience temptations.

By  Michelle Arnold



  1. Peter Aiello Reply

    Of course she had temptations. Her Son was born without original sin and experienced temptation. Why would there be any question as whether Mary did?
    The dogma of the immaculate conception says that she was preserved immune from the stain or dishonor or original faults. The Latin reads: “ab omni originalis culpae labe praeservatam immunem”.
    The wording of the dogma seems to leave it open to interpretation. It doesn’t exactly say that she was born without original sin.

  2. Patrick Gannon Reply

    Let’s remember that it was determined that Mary was born without original sin in 1854 after we learned that females contribute half the genetic material to offspring.
    Why did Mary have to be a virgin in the first place? Because original sin is passed on by sex (which explains the Church’s manic obsession with all things pertaining to sex). At that time, they thought only the male contributed to the offspring, so they didn’t think Mary’s original sin could be passed on. However in the 1800s we learned that females do more than just harbor and grow the male seed – they contribute half the genetic material. That means that the original sin passed on to her because her parents did that naughty sex thing, would be passed on to Jesus as well. The Church couldn’t have that, so they decided she had to have been born without original sin.
    This creates a problem they never talk about though. If Yahweh-Jesus was able to relieve her of original sin, it means that Jesus’ sacrifice was unnecessary. It means the convoluted story of a god who impregnates a virgin with himself in order to sacrifice himself to himself so as to relieve us of a condition he placed on us in the first place, is completely unnecessary. Yahweh-Jesus has the power to simply do away with original sin, as he did for Mary. Yet he chooses not to do so. Why not? Does he get some sort of enjoyment out of sending unbaptized infants to Hell?

  3. Peter Aiello Reply

    Patrick Gannon: My understanding is that blood is passed on only by the male even though part of the genetic material comes from the woman. The life of the flesh is in the blood. Jesus did not have a human father; therefore, original sin was not passed on to Him. Mary had a human father.
    I think that the dogma of the immaculate conception of Mary is open to interpretation as I stated in my prior comment. It only says that she was preserved immune from the stain or dishonor of original faults.

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